To Juan's "Actually" post:
You have still not "demonstrated" how: Many people (the poor) paying zero taxes and other people (the rich) paying the bulk of taxes in the U.S., causes the poor to remain poor and the rich to remain rich.
Now some "other policies" are tossed into the mix: Are some people (the poor) in the USA now slaves or lacking some "policy" they had in the 1970's?
"born to privilege", "tax policy" and "remain in the category" (rich and poor): Again, see Spikey's post below.
"remain in the category" (Poor): Back to finite wealth and money again? Please explain how one person having some money and wealth prohibits another person from getting money and wealth.
"gini": The topic of discussion was from 1970 not the last 70 years.
"Small number of people": They are not the same people. People move into and out of the quintiles all the time - including the top quintile.
"Capturing": As in; wealth and money are finite? They are not.
"Tax policy": How does some people paying; no federal taxes and others paying the bulk of the federal taxes even relate to what you or I earn? It does not.
The better question is: Are the same exact people that were poor in 1970 still poor today? Do we not move between classes as we become more; experienced educated, tenured etc... at our jobs and life?
Of course we do: the majority of the people that were once "poor" are not now the same ones that are "poor" and by the same token the people that were once considered "rich" are no longer the same ones that are considered "rich".
Example (one of hundreds of millions)
Mark Zukerberg
2003s earnings: very little if any.
2012 salary = $600,000
Point being: At the beginning of a career people earn very little, later they earn more (in and out of classes) - how would, why would and how could you change that?
There have been 22 sessions of congress since 1970 (91st 1969-1971): Democrats have controlled 15 of the sessions and Republicans only 7.
As you can see from the figures in my last post there have been a great number more Democrats than Republicans in the House and the Democrats have controlled the House during many more sessions than Republicans.
The House makes and passes federal laws....
Do you really believe that the income disparity that occurred from 1970 to 2012 is the because of Republicans or is it the because of the Democrats having a majority share of the House over that same time frame.
To Juan's "Actually" post:
You have still not "demonstrated" how: Many people (the poor) paying zero taxes and other people (the rich) paying the bulk of taxes in the U.S., causes the poor to remain poor and the rich to remain rich.
Now some "other policies" are tossed into the mix: Are some people (the poor) in the USA now slaves or lacking some "policy" they had in the 1970's?
"born to privilege", "tax policy" and "remain in the category" (rich and poor): Again, see Spikey's post below.
"remain in the category" (Poor): Back to finite wealth and money again? Please explain how one person having some money and wealth prohibits another person from getting money and wealth.
"gini": The topic of discussion was from 1970 not the last 70 years.
"Small number of people": They are not the same people. People move into and out of the quintiles all the time - including the top quintile.
"Capturing": As in; wealth and money are finite? They are not.
"Tax policy": How does some people paying; no federal taxes and others paying the bulk of the federal taxes even relate to what you or I earn? It does not.
"Congress": Spikey said it well.
The better question is: Are the same exact people that were poor in 1970 still poor today? Do we not move between classes as we become more; experienced educated, tenured etc... at our jobs and life?
Of course we do: the majority of the people that were once "poor" are not now the same ones that are "poor" and by the same token the people that were once considered "rich" are no longer the same ones that are considered "rich".
Example (one of hundreds of millions)
Mark Zukerberg
2003s earnings: very little if any.
2012 salary = $600,000
Point being: At the beginning of a career people earn very little, later they earn more (in and out of classes) - how would, why would and how could you change that?
Please see my reply to JTMcPhee.
If you could please explain to me: How is a representative's vote in the House related to tenure?
It would be my guess that a "newcomer" (to the House) would probably be more apt to vote along party lines.
Do you have any data/figure/numbers concerning tenure times that are relevant to the discussion?
There have been 22 sessions of congress since 1970 (91st 1969-1971): Democrats have controlled 15 of the sessions and Republicans only 7.
As you can see from the figures in my last post there have been a great number more Democrats than Republicans in the House and the Democrats have controlled the House during many more sessions than Republicans.
The House makes and passes federal laws....
Do you really believe that the income disparity that occurred from 1970 to 2012 is the because of Republicans or is it the because of the Democrats having a majority share of the House over that same time frame.
If you were not better off than 1970 look no further than the House of Representatives......
Seats:
6911 Democrat
4229 Republican
10 Independent